Is there an asian-language equivalent to Latin?

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yanit +23 yanıt
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fawna adlı üyenin sorusuna 23 kişi cevap verdi.

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Chinese and Japanese are not structurally related. Japanese is in its own language family (along with a couple of dialects), and most linguists are still arguing over where it came from. Chinese is in a language family with Thai, Burmese, and a bunch of other East Asian languages. It comes from a proposed language called Sino-Tibetan. However, Japanese borrowed a lot of words from Chinese, just as English borrowed a lot of words from French. It doesn't mean that English is a Romance language. The 'ai' is spelled with the same character in Chinese and Japanese, which means it's probably a borrowed word.
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""European languages are mostly descended from Latin (correct?)." I can only think of 4. So 'most' is probably an overstatement. "
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They call them Filipinos.
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If am not wrong, korean developed from japanese and japanese from chinnese.
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If we're talking just East Asia, it's probably Chinese. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chinese_language#Influences Approximately 60% of the modern Vietnamese lexicon is recognized as Han-Viet (Sino-Vietnamese), the majority of which was borrowed from Middle Chinese...Fifty percent or more of Korean vocabulary is of Chinese origin,[11] likewise for a significant percentage of Japanese[12] and Vietnamese vocabulary.
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Asian languages tend to torrid heavily from the classical literary language of the dominant culture of the area. For East Asia that would be Classical Chinese. For Southeast Asia outside of Vietnam that would often be Indian languages like Pali and Sanskrit. Note that this borrowing doesn't imply direct descent, just that these languages influenced each other similar to the way Latin influenced German and English.
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Isn't Spanish more Arabic than Latin? And English is probably more Germanic...
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Sanskrit is technically Asian-American, and is similar to Latin in the sense that it isn't spoken too much anymore, although it was at one point. Nowadays, it's mainly read/taught as part of religious (prominently Hindu) scripture.
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There's so much wrong on this page. Your question is based on a false premise for a start - most European languages, including English, are not descended from Latin. However, most European and many Asian languages (including Bengali, Hindi and Persian) are Indo-European and share a common ancestor: proto-Indo-European. Mandarin, on the other hand, is Sino-Tibetan and is unrelated to Korean, Japanese, Vietnamese and other East Asian languages. So, in answer to your question, no.
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I was under the impression that English had its origins in Germanic languages, and just took on a ton of French at one point.
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